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MCCQE최고품질 시험덤프자료 - MCCQE인증덤프샘플 다운

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최신 MCCQE Part 1 MCCQE 무료샘플문제 (Q116-Q121):

질문 # 116
A 79-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset severe chest and back pain that started 1 hour ago. She has a history of hypertension and looks unwell. Her vital signs are as follows:
blood pressure 168/108 mm Hg, heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 22/min, temperature 36.7°C. Findings of a physical examination of the chest and abdomen are normal. An urgent computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest and abdomen shows an aortic dissection extending from the descending thoracic aorta to the upper abdominal aorta. The branches of the abdominal aorta are patent. Following initial resuscitation, which one of the following is the best next step?

A. Admit the patient to the Intensive Care Unit and repeat CT in 6 hours.
B. Conduct open repair of the thoracic and abdominal aorta.
C. Start intravenous heparin.
D. Initiate intravenous labetalol.
E. Perform endovascular repair of the thoracic and abdominal aorta.

정답：D

설명：
This patient has a Stanford type B aortic dissection , involving the descending thoracic aorta distal to the left subclavian artery, with no evidence of branch vessel compromise or rupture. MCCQE objectives emphasize that uncomplicated type B dissections are managed medically , whereas type A dissections (ascending aorta) require urgent surgical repair.
The immediate priority is to reduce shear stress on the aortic wall by controlling heart rate and blood pressure
. Intravenous beta-blockers such as labetalol or esmolol are first-line therapy. The goal is to reduce heart rate to approximately 60 bpm and lower systolic blood pressure to 100-120 mm Hg. This decreases the force of left ventricular contraction (dP/dt), limiting propagation of the dissection.
Endovascular or open repair is reserved for complicated cases (e.g., malperfusion, rupture, refractory pain, uncontrolled hypertension). Anticoagulation with heparin is contraindicated due to bleeding risk. Observation alone without blood pressure control is inappropriate.
Therefore, intravenous labetalol is the best next step.

질문 # 117
A 42-year-old businessman known to have type 2 diabetes and ischemic heart disease is admitted to hospital with acute coronary syndrome. He admits to drinking 4 beers a day for the last 6 years and to binge drinking twice a year when his school buddies are in town. Your chart review reveals that he had a seizure secondary to alcohol withdrawal during his last admission. Which one of the following elements of his history puts him at highest risk of having another such seizure?

A. The quantity of alcohol he consumes daily.
B. His previous episode of alcohol withdrawal.
C. His medical comorbidities.
D. His binge drinking.
E. The number of years he has consumed alcohol.

정답：B

설명：
A history of previous alcohol withdrawal seizures is the single greatest predictor of future withdrawal seizures. This establishes a sensitization response within the central nervous system.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Addiction Medicine:
"A prior history of alcohol withdrawal seizures is the most important risk factor for recurrent seizures during future withdrawal episodes." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Substance Use > 58-3):
"Candidates must identify individuals at high risk for severe alcohol withdrawal based on past withdrawal history, including seizures and delirium tremens." Although quantity, duration, and comorbidities contribute to risk, a prior withdrawal seizure most strongly predicts recurrence.

질문 # 118
A 35-year-old woman presents to your clinic with double vision and a gritty sensation in her eyes for the past several weeks. On examination, you notice her eyes are bulging. There is inflammation of her conjunctivae and swelling around her eyes. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Allergic conjunctivitis
B. Graves ophthalmopathy
C. Orbital pseudotumor
D. Periorbital cellulitis
E. Myasthenia gravis

정답：B

설명：
The findings of exophthalmos (bulging eyes), conjunctival inflammation, and periorbital swelling are hallmark features of Graves ophthalmopathy, a manifestation of autoimmune hyperthyroidism.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, "Thyroid Disorders":
"Graves ophthalmopathy: proptosis, periorbital edema, conjunctivitis, and diplopia due to extraocular muscle involvement. Often independent of thyroid levels." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 36-1: Thyroid Disease):
"Candidates must recognize and manage Graves disease and its ocular manifestations." Myasthenia gravis may cause diplopia but not proptosis or swelling. Pseudotumor and cellulitis are painful and acute. Allergic conjunctivitis is itchy but lacks proptosis.

질문 # 119
A 79-year-old woman is brought by a long-term care (LTC) facility staff member to your clinic with concerning behaviours. On history, she was admitted to an LTC facility 6 months ago with vascular dementia.
Three days ago, she became very aggressive towards her caregivers. There is no clear pattern to her aggression. Some staff members report that she is quieter than usual, whereas others report that she is agitated, talks to herself, and picks at her clothes. On examination, she appears very confused. She does not finish her answers and seems to "drift off" during conversation. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Worsening of the patient's vascular dementia.
B. Major depressive disorder.
C. Lewy body dementia.
D. Delirium.
E. Late-onset delusional disorder.

정답：D

설명：
Delirium is the most likely diagnosis because the change is acute (3 days) with fluctuating level of activity (quiet at times, agitated at others) and prominent inattention (does not finish answers, "drifts off" during conversation). MCCQE objectives emphasize distinguishing delirium from dementia: dementia is typically chronic and progressive , whereas delirium is a sudden, reversible syndrome characterized by disturbed attention and awareness, often with altered sleep-wake cycle, perceptual disturbances, and psychomotor changes (hyperactive, hypoactive, or mixed). This patient's new aggression, confusion, and variable behavior strongly suggest delirium superimposed on existing vascular dementia-a common and high-risk scenario in LTC residents. Major depressive disorder can cause apathy and reduced concentration but does not typically cause a fluctuating course with acute confusion. Lewy body dementia is associated with chronic cognitive fluctuations and visual hallucinations/parkinsonism, not a sudden 3-day deterioration. Late-onset delusional disorder would feature fixed delusions with otherwise clearer consciousness. The next clinical priority is to search for and treat underlying causes (infection, medications, metabolic disturbance, pain, dehydration) while ensuring safety and supportive care.

질문 # 120
A 26-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, presents for her 1st antenatal visit. She states she is at 26 weeks' gestation and is healthy. On abdominal examination, her fundus is palpated at the umbilicus. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for this finding?

A. Intrauterine growth restriction
B. Dating error
C. Partial hydatidiform mole
D. Oligohydramnios
E. Bicornuate uterus

정답：B

설명：
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
At 20 weeks' gestation, the uterine fundus typically reaches the umbilicus. If the fundal height is lower than expected at a stated gestational age of 26 weeks, the most likely explanation-especially with no prior care- is a dating error.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics:
"Fundal height at the umbilicus corresponds to ~20 weeks. In women lacking early prenatal care, dating errors are common causes of fundal height discrepancy." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-3: Routine Antenatal Care):
"Candidates must interpret fundal height and reconcile discrepancies with gestational age." IUGR and oligohydramnios are possible but require imaging confirmation. Bicornuate uterus may cause fundal shape anomalies but not significant dating discrepancy. A mole (D) would increase, not decrease, size.
-

질문 # 121
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